I swore to myself that I would not be drawn into this thread again, but here I am (or should that be hear I am?).

In an nutshell:

a) why do we assume that the "charts" are an accurate barometer of popular taste?

b) why do we assume that the ability of musicians to create innovative and emotionally engaging music has somehow declined after (perhaps) millenia, and certainly centuries? https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DDZdU-snqTs

c) why can we not accept that we are subject to a high degree of bias in our musical preferences in terms of when we first heard the music we like and when that was in our personal development? I am guessing that most of those on this frum are (like myself) 50 plus.

d) Is it not arrogance of the highest order to assume that we are somehow "of a golden age" of musical endeavour? Most of the creators of the music of the 50's and 60's considered it a disposable commodity.

I could go on (ad nauseum) but I am even boring myself ....

Geoff